Official SAT Practice Test 6: Answers and Explanations

SAT PRACTICE TEST 6: MODULE 1
Reading & Writing

Question 1

Though not closely related, the hedgehog tenrecs of Madagascar share basic ____ true hedgehogs, including protective spines, pointed snouts, and small body size—traits the two groups of mammals independently developed in response to equivalent roles in their respective habitats.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) examples of
B) concerns about
C) indications of
D) similarities with

Explanation

Simplify: To make things easier for yourself, replace the 2 different groups with letters A and B.
The hedgehog tenrecs of Madagascar → Group A
True Hedgehogs → Group B

“Though” (but): In English, “though” is a conjunction or adverb used to introduce a contrast or an unexpected outcome, similar to “but” or “however.” It suggests that the second part of the sentence goes against or softens the idea in the first part. For example:

• I was tired (and usually would relax or sleep), but I kept studying.
• I was hungry, but I didn’t eat anything.
• I was sleepy, but I kept driving.

Conclusion: The sentence starts by saying Group A (the hedgehog tenrecs of Madagascar) isn’t closely related to Group B (true hedgehogs). But then it mentions they share a lot of similar traits like protective spines, pointed snouts, and small body size*. So, the unexpected part is that they’re not closely related, BUT they have similar characteristics. The answer is D) similarities with. Option D is the correct answer.

*You can ignore those examples since they provide nothing of value. We don’t really care about what they have in common.

Question 2

2 questions in and the test is already talking about feminism. Who could have guessed!

In editor Lisa Yaszek’s introduction to her anthology The Future Is Female! More Classic Science Fiction Stories by Women, Yaszek identifies an increasing sense of ____ feminist mode of writing in the 1970s, in contrast to many woman-authored science fiction stories of the 1920s to 1960s whose politics were less deliberately signaled.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) a prudently
B) an overtly
C) a cordially
D) an inadvertently

Explanation

Simplify: There is a contrast between the writing in 1970s, and the ones from 1920s to 1960s. That is our group A & B.

Overt (adj.): Describing actions or behaviors that are open, visible, or easily observed. Such actions are not hidden, concealed, or secretive, but are readily apparent and easily noticed by others.
-ly: A suffix added to the end of a word to form an adverb. Click here for a list of most common suffixes in English.

Conclusion: Politics of group B were “less deliberately signaled” compared to group A. Meaning, group A’s politics were voiced in a relatively more straightforward, clearer, and more transparent way. Option B is the correct answer.

Question 3

____ the long-standing trend of overemphasizing teenagers and young adults in research on social media use, scholars have recently begun to expand their focus to include the fastest-growing cohort of social media users: senior citizens.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) Exacerbating
B) Redressing
C) Epitomizing
D) Precluding

Explanation

Simplify: Don’t let the sophisticated terminology discourage you. In the past, researchers focused mainly on teenagers and young adults. However, they’ve recently shifted their focus to include senior citizens. Meaning, they changed the way they see things. They rethought things and now they have a new perspective.

Redress: The prefix “re-” in “redress” indicates a repetition or reversal of action, suggesting the idea of “doing again” or “doing differently.” In this context, “re-” implies taking action to correct or undo something that has gone wrong.
Click here to learn more about “over-“, “under-“, “re-“, and many more prefixes in English.

Conclusion: Redressing (changing) the long-standing trend of focusing only on teenagers, researchers now consider senior citizens as well in their research. The correct answer is B.

Question 4

The following text is adapted from James Baldwin’s 1956 novel Giovanni’s Room. The narrator is riding in a taxi down a street lined with food vendors and shoppers in Paris, France.

“The multitude of Paris seems to be dressed in blue every day but Sunday, when, for the most part, they put on an unbelievably festive black. Here they were now, in blue, disputing, every inch, our passage, with their wagons, handtrucks, their bursting baskets carried at an angle steeply self-confident on the back.”
©1956 by James Baldwin

As used in the text, what does the word “disputing” most nearly mean?

A) Arguing about
B) Disapproving of
C) Asserting possession of
D) Providing resistance to

Explanation

Simplify: When facing a relatively difficult text such as this one, the best thing you can do is read the introduction more carefully, rather than spending too much time on the quote. Try to have a mental image of what’s taking place. Our protagonist is in a taxi on a crowded street with lots of shoppers and street vendors.

Dispute (v.): To argue, disagree, or debate with someone, typically over a particular issue, topic, or matter.

Conclusion: The “dispute” is being used to describe the effect the crowd and street vendors have on “every inch” of the taxi’s “passage”. It’s about the path, not the driver or the protagonist. Simply put, it means that the street was very crowded and the taxi had a hard time going through the crowd. Option D is the correct answer.

Question 5

While recent scholarship has undermined claims that the works of twelfth-century Islamic philosopher Ibn Rushd were ____ other Muslim philosophers of his time, it is indisputable that his location in the Muslim-ruled area of what is now Spain meant that his works were primarily available thousands of miles west of the era’s center of Islamic thought.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) controversial among
B) antagonistic toward
C) imitated by
D) inconsequential to

Explanation:

While: While is commonly used to introduce contrasting points or ideas in a sentence. It typically indicates that two actions, situations, or concepts are happening simultaneously but are different or opposed to each other. Quite similar to “though” in Question 1.

• While I prefer coffee, my sister likes tea.
• I enjoy cooking dinner while my roommate prefers ordering takeout.
• While Sarah is outgoing and sociable, her brother is shy and reserved.

Conclusion: In this case, the correct answer is “imitated by”. Option C is the best choice here.

Question 6

On painter William H. Johnson’s return to the United States in 1938 after a decade in Europe, his style underwent an abrupt transformation. Turning away from landscapes painted in an expressionist style—a style that often involves using fluid, distorted shapes and thick, textured brushstrokes to express the artist’s subjective experience of reality—Johnson began painting portraits of Black Americans in a bold new way. Evocative of African sculpture and American and Scandinavian folk art, these portraits feature flat, deliberately oversimplified figures in a vibrant but limited color palette.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It elaborates on the previous sentence’s statement about a transitional moment in Johnson’s artistic career.
B) It provides information about Johnson’s travels in support of a claim about his artistic influences, which is advanced in the following sentence.
C) It recounts a moment in Johnson’s personal life that enabled the success of his subsequent career, which is summarized in the following sentence.
D) It presents evidence that calls into question the previous sentence’s characterization of Johnson’s artistic development.

Explanation

Simplify: The underlined sentence describes the shift in Johnson’s style from expressionist landscapes to new portraits.

Time management: Check the initial parts of the options for correctness:

A) Correct. The underlined text explains Johnson’s style change.
B) Incorrect. It does not discuss his travels.
C) Incorrect. It is not about his personal life.
D) Incorrect. The sentence supports, rather than questions, the previous statement.

Conclusion: The best answer is A. It elaborates on Johnson’s transition in his artistic style.

Question 7

When classical pianist Martha Argerich performs, it appears as if the music is coming to her spontaneously. She’s highly skilled technically, but because of how freely she plays and her willingness to take risks, she seems relaxed and natural. Her apparent ease, however, is due to a tremendous amount of preparation. Despite Argerich’s experience and virtuosity, she never takes for granted that she knows a piece of music. Instead, she approaches the music as if encountering it for the first time and tries to understand it anew.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

A) To provide details about how Argerich identifies which pieces of music she will perform
B) To assert that Argerich’s performances look effortless because of how she prepares for them
C) To discuss the kinds of music Argerich feels most comfortable encountering for the first time
D) To describe the unique way that Argerich approaches music she hasn’t performed before

Explanation

Simplify: She is skilled. She is ok with taking risks. She practices a lot which allows her to stay calm. She always does her best and doesn’t do things just for the sake of doing them.

Time management: Check the initial parts of the options for correctness:

A) Incorrect. The text is not about how she chooses what to perform.
B) Correct. The text’s main purpose is explaining that her rigorous practice is what allows her to stay calm and collected.
C) Incorrect. The text does not talk about different kinds of music.
D) Incorrect. The text does not discuss a unique way in which she approaches new music.

Conclusion: The best answer is B. Her performances appear effortless due to her extensive preparation.

Question 8

The following text is adapted from Herman Melville’s 1855 novel Israel Potter. Israel is a young man wandering through New England during the late eighteenth century.

“He hired himself out for three months; at the end of that time to receive for his wages two hundred acres of land lying in New Hampshire. […] His employer proving false to the contract in the matter of the land, and there being no law in the country to force him to fulfil it, Israel—who, however brave-hearted, and even much of a dare-devil upon a pinch, seems nevertheless to have evinced, throughout many parts of his career, a singular patience and mildness—was obliged to look round for other means of livelihood than clearing out a farm for himself in the wilderness.”

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

A) It implies that Israel treasures a particular characteristic of his personality when that characteristic should usually be regarded as a flaw.
B) It suggests that if not for a certain aspect of his character, Israel might not have been as easily thwarted in his ambition to establish a farm.
C) It shows why Israel would not have been able to undertake the enormous amount of labor necessary to run a farm even if he had owned the necessary property.
D) It explains why, when the situation requires it, Israel is able to undertake courageous acts that others would generally avoid.

Explanation

Relative Clause: A relative clause adds more details about a noun, starting with words like “who,” “which,” or “that.” For instance, “I like the book that you lent me” has a relative clause providing extra information about the “book.”

Simplify: The story is that Israel was promised land in exchange for work, but the employer did not keep his promise and Israel had to look for a different job. The underlined section describes Israel as brave but generally calm and patient.

Time management: Check the initial parts of the options for correctness:

A) Incorrect. There is no mention of Israel treasuring this trait.
B) Correct. The underlined text implies that Israel’s patience and mildness affected his response to being thwarted.
C) Incorrect. The text does not discuss his ability to undertake farm labor.
D) Incorrect. While Israel can be courageous, the underlined text does not explain why he behaves this way.

Conclusion: The best answer is B. Israel’s patience and mildness influenced his response to being denied what he was promised.

Question 9

With regard to the large role that taste plays in determining what is considered “good” art, the ____ or novel character of a given work might often be considered a measure of its value. However, a great deal of art that is initially disregarded or dismissed often comes to be appreciated in time.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A) sensuous
B) unusual
C) ephemeral
D) abstract

Explanation

Simplify: The sentence is about how taste influences what is seen as valuable art. It suggests that something often deemed valuable in art is its newness or uniqueness.

Time management: Check the initial parts of the options for correctness:

A) Incorrect. “Sensuous” refers to physical or emotional pleasure, not to newness or uniqueness.
B) Correct. “Unusual” aligns with the idea of new or novel character as a measure of value.
C) Incorrect. “Ephemeral” means short-lived, which does not fit the context of value.
D) Incorrect. “Abstract” refers to a style of art, not to its newness or uniqueness.

Conclusion: The best answer is B. The unusual or novel character of a work is often seen as a measure of its value.

Question 10

To understand how Paleolithic artists navigated dark caves, archaeologist Ma Ángeles Medina-Alcaide and her team tested different lighting methods in a cave in Spain using replicas of artifacts found in European caves with art. They used three different Paleolithic light sources—torches, animal-fat lamps, and fireplaces—determining that each likely had a specific purpose. For instance, the team learned that the animal-fat lamps were less useful than torches while walking because the lamps didn’t illuminate the cave floor.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

A) Medina-Alcaide and her team’s study demonstrated that fireplaces were essential to the creators of Paleolithic cave art.
B) Medina-Alcaide and her team discovered that Paleolithic cave artists in Spain used animal-fat lamps more often than they used torches.
C) Medina-Alcaide and her team were reluctant to draw many conclusions from their study because of the difficulty they had replicating light sources based on known artifacts.
D) Medina-Alcaide and her team tested Paleolithic light sources and learned some details about how Paleolithic artists traveled within dark caves.

Explanation

Simplify: The text discusses how different Paleolithic light sources were used and what the team learned about their purposes.

Time management: Evaluate the options based on what the text conveys:

A) Incorrect. The study did not focus on fireplaces being essential but on how different light sources were used.
B) Incorrect. The text does not indicate that animal-fat lamps were used more often than torches.
C) Incorrect. The text does not mention reluctance or difficulty in drawing conclusions.
D) Correct. The main idea is about testing different light sources and understanding how Paleolithic artists navigated dark caves.

Conclusion: The best answer is D. The text primarily focuses on testing light sources and understanding their use in cave navigation.

Question 11

Annual Car Production in the United States, 1910–1925

A student is using the table as part of a social studies class presentation on the US auto industry in the early twentieth century. The student notes that, according to the table, from 1910 to 1925 _____.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

A) the number of cars produced increased but the number of companies producing cars decreased.
B) both the number of cars produced and the number of companies producing cars remained unchanged.
C) the number of cars produced decreased but the number of companies producing cars remained unchanged.
D) both the number of cars produced and the number of companies producing cars increased.

Explanation

Simplify: The table shows that the number of cars produced increased, while the number of companies producing cars decreased over the period.

Time management: Try to find trends, patterns, and anomalies in the numbers without worrying about what they represent. Number of cars produced have gone up over time. Number of companies producing cars has gone down over time. You shouldn’t worry about the mathematical relations between these numbers. The literature part of the SAT will never test you for your mathematical skills.

A) Correct. The number of cars produced increased, and the number of companies decreased.
B) Incorrect. Both the number of cars and companies changed.
C) Incorrect. The number of cars produced increased, not decreased.
D) Incorrect. The number of companies producing cars decreased.

Conclusion: The best answer is A. It accurately reflects the trends shown in the table.

Question 12

External shopping cues are a type of marketing that uses obvious messaging—a display featuring a new product, for example, or a “buy one, get one free” offer—to entice consumers to make spontaneous purchases. In a study, data scientist Sam K. Hui and colleagues found that this effect can also be achieved with a less obvious cue: rearranging a store’s layout. The researchers explain that trying to find items in new locations causes shoppers to move through more of the store, exposing them to more products and increasing the likelihood that they’ll buy an item they hadn’t planned on purchasing.

Which response from a survey given to shoppers who made a purchase at a retail store best supports the researchers’ explanation?

A) “I needed to buy some cleaning supplies, but they weren’t in their regular place. While I was looking for them, I saw this interesting notebook and decided to buy it, too.”
B) “I didn’t buy everything on my shopping list today. I couldn’t find a couple of the items in the store, even though I looked all over for them.”
C) “The store sent me a coupon for a new brand of soup, so I came here to find out what kinds of soup that brand offers. I decided to buy a few cans because I had the coupon.”
D) “This store is larger than one that’s closer to where I live, and it carries more products. I came here to buy some things that the other store doesn’t always have.”

Explanation

Simplify: The study suggests that rearranging the store leads shoppers to buy more items because they encounter new products while searching for what they need.

Time management: Review the responses:

A) Correct. The shopper found additional items while searching for something else in a rearranged store layout.
B) Incorrect. This response focuses on not finding items but does not suggest additional purchases.
C) Incorrect. This response is about a coupon, not the effect of store layout on purchasing behavior.
D) Incorrect. The focus is on store size and product availability, not layout changes.

Conclusion: The best answer is A. It directly supports the explanation that rearranging the store leads to additional purchases.

Question 13

The 2021 exhibition This Is the Day at Arkansas’s Crystal Bridges Museum of American Art featured works dealing with expressions of faith and spirituality in the Black community. The museum’s 2022 exhibition The Dirty South, meanwhile, focused on Black culture in the American South from 1920 to 2020, with a particular focus on the intersections between visual arts and music. Together, these exhibitions don’t merely highlight the diversity of the Black experience in the US; they also showcase the diverse media through which artists have depicted and engaged with that experience.

Which statement about the exhibitions, if true, would most directly support the underlined claim?

A) Between them, This Is the Day and The Dirty South included drawings, paintings, photographs, sculptures, textiles, videos, costumes, and music.
B) This Is the Day included works by fewer than two dozen artists, whereas The Dirty South included works by more than 80 artists.
C) The Crystal Bridges Museum of American Art is the only museum to feature exhibitions on Black culture in both 2021 and 2022.
D) This Is the Day and The Dirty South featured artworks from the twentieth and twenty-first centuries.

Explanation

Simplify: The underlined claim suggests that the exhibitions showcase a variety of media through which artists have engaged with the Black experience.

Time management: Check which statement supports the claim about diverse media:

A) Correct. This statement highlights the variety of media used in both exhibitions, supporting the claim about showcasing diverse media.
B) Incorrect. This statement focuses on the number of artists, not the variety of media.
C) Incorrect. This statement is about the museum’s unique role, not the diversity of media.
D) Incorrect. This statement addresses the time periods of the artworks, not the variety of media.

Conclusion: The best answer is A. It directly supports the claim about the diverse media used in the exhibitions.

Question 14

Many people enjoy eating large meals, particularly when celebrating holidays. However, some research suggests that eating big meals could be detrimental to health, as the large amounts of food consumed in a single sitting might lead to negative long-term effects. As a result, there is increasing interest in the concept of eating smaller, more frequent meals as a way to help mitigate these effects.

Which choice provides the best evidence to support the idea that eating smaller, more frequent meals could be beneficial?

A) Research shows that people who eat larger meals are more likely to experience indigestion compared to those who eat smaller meals.
B) The concept of eating smaller, more frequent meals is gaining popularity among health experts and dieticians.
C) Many people who enjoy large meals also report feeling sleepy or sluggish after eating.
D) Studies indicate that eating smaller, more frequent meals can help regulate blood sugar levels and improve metabolic health.

Explanation

Simplify: The idea is that eating smaller, more frequent meals might improve health outcomes compared to eating large meals.

Time management: Evaluate the evidence supporting the benefits of smaller, more frequent meals:

A) Incorrect. While this shows a potential issue with large meals, it does not directly support the benefits of smaller meals.
B) Incorrect. Popularity among experts does not provide evidence of the benefits of smaller meals.
C) Incorrect. This response addresses symptoms related to large meals but does not support the benefits of smaller meals.
D) Correct. This statement directly supports the benefits of eating smaller, more frequent meals by citing specific health improvements.

Conclusion: The best answer is D. It provides direct evidence supporting the benefits of eating smaller, more frequent meals.

Question 15

For centuries, Native American communities in the Great Plains have used a distinctive method of storytelling known as the winter count. A winter count is a visual calendar depicting significant events and experiences that have occurred each year. Traditionally, a winter count is painted on a buffalo hide, with one symbol or drawing representing each year’s events. Although winter counts are primarily visual, they often include brief written descriptions to provide additional context or detail.

Which choice best describes the purpose of including written descriptions in winter counts?

A) to supplement the visual elements with specific details that might not be immediately clear from the symbols alone
B) to ensure that each winter count is understandable to people who cannot read visual symbols
C) to make it easier for those who were not present at the events depicted to understand the winter count
D) to replace visual symbols with written descriptions for greater clarity and accuracy

Explanation: Winter counts use visual symbols to represent events, but sometimes include brief written descriptions for extra detail.

Time management: Evaluate the purpose of written descriptions:

A) Correct. Written descriptions provide additional context and details that enhance the understanding of the visual elements.
B) Incorrect. The written descriptions do not replace the need for visual symbols.
C) Incorrect. The descriptions are not specifically for those not present but to add context to the symbols.
D) Incorrect. The descriptions are supplementary, not a replacement for visual symbols.

Conclusion: The best answer is A. Written descriptions supplement the visual elements with specific details.

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Question 16

Under normal atmospheric pressure at Earth’s surface, water molecules form a tetrahedral network stabilized by hydrogen bonds between adjacent molecules. Extreme high pressure, such as can be found in deep ocean waters, destabilizes these bonds and compresses water’s structure, allowing water molecules within organisms to permeate proteins and impede crucial biological functions; yet deep-sea organisms known as piezophiles have adapted to extreme pressure. Studies have found a positive correlation between the depths that various piezophiles inhabit and concentrations of a compound called trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) in their muscle tissues, which has led a team of researchers to hypothesize that TMAO reduces water’s compressibility.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis?

A) Water molecules are found to be impervious to TMAO even when the water molecules’ tetrahedral configuration has been distorted by high pressure.
B) Examination of TMAO’s molecular structure shows that TMAO molecules retain their shape even as pressure increases.
C) A positive correlation is found between concentrations of TMAO and the rate at which water’s molecular structure compresses as pressure increases.
D) Analysis of water’s molecular structure under high pressure reveals that hydrogen bonds are more stable when TMAO is present than when it is not.

Explanation: The researchers hypothesize that TMAO reduces how much water compresses under high pressure, helping deep-sea organisms survive.

Analyze the options:

• A) This says water molecules are unaffected by TMAO even when distorted, which doesn’t directly show TMAO affects water’s compressibility.
• B) This describes TMAO’s stability under pressure, but doesn’t link TMAO to changes in water’s compressibility.
• C) This says higher TMAO levels are linked to faster compression of water’s structure, which is the opposite of the hypothesis that TMAO reduces compressibility.
• D) This states hydrogen bonds in water are more stable with TMAO present under high pressure, directly supporting the idea that TMAO reduces water’s compressibility.

Conclusion: The best answer is D. It provides direct evidence that TMAO stabilizes water’s molecular structure under pressure, which supports the hypothesis that TMAO reduces water’s compressibility.

Question 17

The Cretaceous pterosaur Tupandactylus navigans is known for having an anomalously oversized head crest. Until an almost complete fossil skeleton was found in Brazil, paleontologists had been able to study only skull specimens from T. navigans, though it was presumed that, like other pterosaurs, the species’s primary form of locomotion was powered flight. Examining the fuller skeleton in 2016, Victor Beccari and his team determined that T. navigans had long hind legs, short wings, and an unusually long neck—characteristics that, combined with the creature’s large-crested head, would have made sustained flight difficult and walking upright relatively comfortable.

Based on these findings the team suggests that T. navigans likely _______

A) flew for longer distances than did other pterosaur species that had oversized head crests.
B) had longer wings than other pterosaur species considered to have been comfortable walking.
C) had a smaller head than researchers expected based on the earlier T. navigans skull specimens.
D) flew for shorter distances and spent more time walking than researchers previously thought.

Explanation: The passage provides new skeletal evidence that T. navigans had short wings, long legs, and a long neck — traits that made flying harder and walking easier. The logical conclusion is that it probably didn’t fly as much as previously assumed and likely spent more time walking.

Analyze the options:

• A) Incorrect. This contradicts the passage. It says T. navigans likely flew for longer distances, but the text clearly indicates that sustained flight would have been difficult.
• B) Incorrect. The passage says the wings were short, not long. This directly opposes what the option claims.
• C) Incorrect. There’s no suggestion that the head was smaller than expected. In fact, the oversized crest is consistent with prior knowledge, and the new information comes from the rest of the body, not the head.
• D) Correct. This aligns directly with the passage. The fossil evidence leads researchers to believe the creature flew less and walked more than they had previously assumed.

Conclusion: The best answer is D. It logically completes the sentence by matching the implications of the new fossil evidence: reduced flight ability and increased comfort walking.

Question 18

Consumer psychologists have theorized that the likelihood that people who identify as ethical consumers—meaning that they strive to purchase goods and services with positive or neutral social and ecological effects—will purchase a given product positively correlates with their perception of that product’s effects. In a recent study of the attitudes of self-identified ethical consumers toward purchasing a specific mobile phone coming to market, researchers found that, on average, study participants in their twenties rated the phone’s social and ecological effects much less positively than did participants in other age groups.

All other things being equal, if consumer psychologists’ theory is correct, this finding suggests that _______

A) the phone is less appealing to ethical consumers in their twenties than other similar phones on the market are.
B) ethical consumers in their twenties are less likely to purchase the phone than ethical consumers in other age groups are.
C) there is not a meaningful difference in the likelihood of purchasing the phone among ethical consumers in different age groups.
D) ethical consumers in their twenties are more likely than ethical consumers in other age groups to consider a phone’s social and ecological effects when deciding whether to purchase that phone.

Explanation: The theory says the more positively ethical consumers perceive a product’s social/ecological impact, the more likely they are to buy it. The study shows that people in their twenties rated this phone’s impact less positively than others. If the theory holds true, these younger consumers should also be less likely to purchase the phone.

Analyze the options:

• A) Incorrect. While the phone may be less appealing to younger ethical consumers, this choice compares it to other phones on the market, which is outside the scope of the passage. We only know how this phone was rated compared to ratings by other age groups.
• B) Correct. This directly follows from the theory and the study results. Since younger participants rated the phone’s impact less positively, they are predicted to be less likely to buy it.
• C) Incorrect. This contradicts the study’s finding, which reveals a clear difference in perception between age groups. According to the theory, that perception difference should lead to a difference in purchase likelihood.
• D) Incorrect. The passage doesn’t provide any information about how much different age groups value social/ecological factors. It only says younger people viewed this phone more negatively—not that they value these effects more.

Conclusion: The best answer is B. It logically completes the sentence based on the correlation described in the theory and the perception data from the study.

Question 19

The Boston Saloon was one of the most popular African American–owned establishments in nineteenth-century Nevada. _______ by businessman William A.G. Brown, the saloon was known to offer elegant accommodations and an inclusive environment.

A) Created
B) Creates
C) Creating
D) Create

Explanation: The sentence is written in the past tense (“The Boston Saloon was…”), so the blank must also use a past-tense or past participle form that fits with the passive construction.

• A) Created — Correct. “Created” is the past simple (v2) and past participle (v3) form of the regular verb “create.” It fits perfectly in this passive structure: “Created by William A.G. Brown, the saloon was known to…”
• B) Creates — Incorrect. “Creates” is present simple, used with he/she/it. Example: “She creates art.” This doesn’t match the past tense of the sentence.
• C) Creating — Incorrect. “Creating” is the present participle (or “-ing” form). It would need a helping verb like “was” to make grammatical sense (e.g., “was creating”), which we don’t have here.
• D) Create — Incorrect. “Create” is the base form of the verb. It’s used with plural subjects or modals like “can” or “will.” This doesn’t work in this context.

Grammar tip: In present simple tense, we add -s to verbs when the subject is he, she, or it (e.g., “He creates”). For all other subjects (I, you, we, they), we use the base form without “s” (e.g., “They create”). The “-ing” form is used in continuous tenses (e.g., “is creating”) and sometimes as a noun (e.g., “Creating art is fun”). Refer to English Grammar in Use, Units 1–25.

Conclusion: The best answer is A) Created.

Question 20

Louise Bennett (1919–2006), also known as “Miss Lou,” was an influential Jamaican poet and folklorist. Her innovative poems _______ the use of Jamaican Creole (a spoken language) in literature.

A) popularized;
B) popularized,
C) popularized
D) popularized:

Explanation: The sentence is a complete thought: “Her innovative poems popularized the use of Jamaican Creole in literature.” It has a clear subject (“Her innovative poems”) and a past tense verb (“popularized”). No punctuation is needed at the end of this clause because it is not leading into another phrase or list. Therefore, no semicolon, comma, or colon is appropriate here.

• A) popularized; — Incorrect. A semicolon is used to connect two independent clauses. There is no second clause following it.
• B) popularized, — Incorrect. A comma here would be a grammatical error unless more sentence follows, which it doesn’t.
• C) popularized — Correct. No punctuation is needed. This completes the sentence properly and conforms to standard grammar rules.
• D) popularized: — Incorrect. A colon introduces an explanation or a list. There’s nothing that follows here that requires a colon.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) popularized.

Question 21

“He was just the man for such a place, and it was just the place for such a man.” This line is from Frederick Douglass’s autobiography Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass (1845). It’s an example of antimetabole, a writing technique that _______ emphasis by repeating a statement in a reversed order.

A) create
B) are creating
C) have created
D) creates

Explanation: The subject of the sentence is “a writing technique,” which is a singular noun. The verb that follows must agree with this singular subject and match the present simple tense, because the sentence is making a general, timeless statement about what antimetabole does (not what it did or is doing now).

• A) create — Incorrect. “Create” is the base form, used with plural subjects like “they” or “writers.” It does not agree with the singular subject “a writing technique.”
• B) are creating — Incorrect. This is present continuous tense, which would require a plural subject (“techniques are creating…”). Also, the sentence is not describing an ongoing action.
• C) have created — Incorrect. This is present perfect tense, suggesting a completed action with present relevance. But the sentence is making a general claim, not referring to past results.
• D) creates — Correct. “Creates” is the correct present simple form for third-person singular subjects like “technique.” It matches the structure of the sentence and makes sense in context.

Grammar tip: In the present simple tense, verbs take an -s ending when the subject is third-person singular (he, she, it, or a singular noun like “technique”). For example: “The method works,” “Antimetabole creates emphasis.” Refer to English Grammar in Use, Units 1–25.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) creates.

Question 22

Researchers Amit Kumar and Nicholas Epley investigated how _______ In a series of experiments conducted in 2022, they found that people performing small acts of kindness underestimated the positive effect their actions had on others.

A) do people perceive acts of kindness.
B) do people perceive acts of kindness?
C) people perceive acts of kindness?
D) people perceive acts of kindness.

Explanation: The sentence beginning with “Researchers…investigated how” is a statement, not a question. Therefore, the word order after “how” should follow standard statement (subject-verb) structure, not question (auxiliary-subject-verb) structure.

• A) do people perceive acts of kindness. — Incorrect. This uses question word order (do + subject + verb) but ends with a period, which creates a grammatical mismatch. It also doesn’t work as a statement after “investigated how.”
• B) do people perceive acts of kindness? — Incorrect. This is a direct question, but the sentence is a reported statement, not a question. The question mark is also inappropriate here.
• C) people perceive acts of kindness? — Incorrect. Although the word order is correct for a statement, the question mark again makes it grammatically incorrect. It’s not phrased as a direct question.
• D) people perceive acts of kindness. — Correct. This is grammatically correct. It uses standard subject-verb order and ends with a period, matching the tone and structure of the sentence.

Grammar tip: After verbs like “investigated,” “examined,” or “understood,” which introduce indirect questions, use statement word order (subject + verb), not question order. Refer to English Grammar in Use, Unit 50.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) people perceive acts of kindness.

Question 23

In a painting titled “The Milkmaid” by Johannes Vermeer, the artist prominently features a bread basket, milk pitcher, and bowl. Such quotidian objects, depicted in exquisite detail by Vermeer, a painter celebrated for his naturalism, _______ the daily minutiae of a seventeenth-century Dutch household.

A) was revealing
B) has revealed
C) reveals
D) reveal

Explanation: The subject “Such quotidian objects” is plural, so we need a verb that agrees with a plural subject. The rest of the sentence is in present tense (“features,” “depicted”), so the correct verb should also be in present tense and match the overall tone of general observation about the painting.

Simplify: I highly recommend removing the non-essential clauses so that you can have your subject closer to your verb. That makes it easier to know whether you need the “-s” or not.

Original sentence: “Such quotidian objects, depicted in exquisite detail by Vermeer, a painter celebrated for his naturalism, _______ the daily minutiae of a seventeenth-century Dutch household.”
The shortened sentence: Such quotidian objects _______ the daily minutiae of a seventeenth-century Dutch household. This is similar to saying “my brother plays basketball.” and “my friends play basketball.”

• A) was revealing — Incorrect. This is past continuous tense, which is used for actions that were ongoing or incomplete in the past. It doesn’t match the present-tense narration or the general, timeless nature of the statement.
• B) has revealed — Incorrect. Present perfect tense focuses on a completed action that has relevance to the present, but it disrupts the consistent present simple style used in the rest of the sentence.
• C) reveals — Incorrect. While this is present simple, it’s a singular form. The subject “objects” is plural, so this doesn’t agree grammatically.
• D) reveal — Correct. This is present simple and matches the plural subject “objects.” It also fits the tone of the sentence, which describes a general truth or timeless observation about the painting.

Grammar tip: Use present simple tense for general facts, timeless truths, or repeated actions—especially when describing what artworks or texts do. Avoid past continuous (“was revealing”) unless you’re focusing on an ongoing, unfinished action in the past. Refer to English Grammar in Use, Units 1–25.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) reveal.

Question 24

Jamaican British artist Willard Wigan is known for his remarkable _______ so small that they are best viewed through a microscope, Wigan’s sculptures are made from tiny natural materials, such as spiderweb strands.

A) microsculptures creations
B) microsculptures, creations
C) microsculptures. Creations
D) microsculptures and creations

Explanation: The sentence has two independent ideas connected by a comma, which creates a comma splice error if left uncorrected. The correct choice should fix this error and make the sentence grammatically clear.

• A) microsculptures creations — Incorrect. No punctuation or conjunction separates the two nouns, resulting in a confusing, run-on phrase.
• B) microsculptures, creations — Incorrect. The comma alone does not properly separate two independent clauses and causes a comma splice.
• C) microsculptures. Creations — Correct. The period separates the two independent clauses properly, making two clear sentences.
• D) microsculptures and creations — Incorrect. While grammatically acceptable to join the nouns with “and,” this choice changes the meaning by implying they are the same category, and the second clause would still need to be joined properly to the rest of the sentence.

Grammar tip: When two independent clauses are joined without a conjunction, use a period (.) or semicolon (;) to separate them and avoid comma splice errors. Commas alone can’t link two complete sentences. Visit this page for in-depth explanations.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) microsculptures. Creations.

Question 25

Consider the mechanics of the pinhole camera: light passes through a small hole, resulting in a focused projected image. A ray diagram reveals how this _______ the hole’s small size restricts light to a single ray, all light passing through the hole can only arrive at a single destination, eliminating diffraction and ensuring a clear image.

A) works because
B) works. Because
C) works, it’s because
D) works: it’s because

Explanation: The two parts here have a cause-and-effect relationship, but their connection is complex. The first sentence says the camera “works,” and the second explains why, but the explanation is long and detailed. Choosing how to connect these parts affects meaning and clarity:

• A) works because — Incorrect. This choice joins the cause and explanation in one sentence. However, it implies that the camera works *because* the hole restricts light to a single ray and *only* that happens. The actual meaning is that the camera’s working is revealed by the ray diagram, which itself explains the restriction of light. Joining these ideas under “because” muddles the logic by making the explanation seem like the direct cause of the camera working, which is misleading.
• B) works. Because — Correct. This separates the two ideas into two sentences. The first sentence states the fact that the camera works. The second sentence begins with “Because” and offers a detailed explanation of why it works, starting fresh and allowing the explanation to stand clearly on its own. This structure preserves the intended meaning: the ray diagram reveals *how* the camera works by explaining the physical cause.
• C) works, it’s because — Incorrect. This is a comma splice, incorrectly joining two independent clauses with a comma. It also creates a confusing sentence that interrupts the flow.
• D) works: it’s because — Incorrect. The colon introduces an explanation, but “it’s because” leads into a dependent clause, which is not a proper way to use a colon. The punctuation creates awkwardness and breaks grammatical rules.

Punctuation tip: Use a period to separate closely related but complex ideas when one is a fact and the other is an explanation that benefits from standing alone. Avoid joining them with “because” if the resulting sentence confuses cause and effect or becomes too long.

Conclusion: The best answer is B) works. Because, as it clearly separates the statement and its explanation, maintaining precise meaning and readability.

Question 26

In the search for extraterrestrial life, astrobiologists Stuart Bartlett and Michael L. Wong propose that scientists avoid using the term “life.” _______ researchers should use another word: “lyfe.” This new term, they argue, could be used to draw distinctions between the known characteristics of life on Earth and the potentially differing characteristics of lyfe on other planets.

A) Previously,
B) Regardless,
C) There,
D) Instead,

Explanation: The first sentence says that scientists propose avoiding the term “life.” The second sentence suggests an alternative word they recommend using. The best transition word needs to show that the second idea offers a replacement or alternative to the first.

• A) Previously, — Incorrect. “Previously” refers to something that happened before, which doesn’t fit here because the sentence is presenting a new suggestion, not referring to a past event.
• B) Regardless, — Incorrect. “Regardless” means “despite that,” which would imply that the second sentence contradicts or ignores the first. Here, the second sentence follows logically from the first, so this doesn’t fit.
• C) There, — Incorrect. “There” is a location word and doesn’t function well as a transition in this context.
• D) Instead, — Correct. “Instead” signals that the second sentence offers an alternative to the first idea—using “lyfe” in place of “life.” This is the most logical and clear choice for linking the two sentences.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) Instead, because it clearly indicates a replacement or alternative.

Question 27

Before it unveiled a massive new gallery in 2009, the Art Institute of Chicago was only able to display about 5% of its art collection. _______ the museum is able to display close to 30% of its collection.

A) Additionally,
B) For example,
C) Nevertheless,
D) Today,

Explanation: The first sentence describes the museum’s limited display capacity before 2009. The second sentence shows an improved situation after 2009. The transition word should connect these ideas logically, highlighting the change over time.

• A) Additionally, — Incorrect. This word adds information but does not clearly indicate a change from a past limitation to a present improvement.
• B) For example, — Incorrect. This phrase introduces an illustration or example, which doesn’t fit since the second sentence is not an example but a contrasting update.
• C) Nevertheless, — Incorrect. “Nevertheless” introduces a contrast that implies something unexpected or opposing the first idea. Here, the second sentence continues the idea of improvement, so contrast is not appropriate.
• D) Today, — Correct. “Today” clearly indicates a change over time, showing the current state compared to the past described in the first sentence.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) Today, because it logically signals the updated situation after 2009.

Question 28

Working together with the Navajo Nation Department of Water Resources, Dr. Lani Tsinnajinnie analyzed data about snowpack levels in the Chuska Mountains. She found that the snowpack (the amount of snow on the ground) was deepest in early March at lower elevations. At higher elevations, _______ the snowpack was deepest in mid-March.

A) in other words,
B) for instance,
C) on the other hand,
D) in summary,

Explanation: The sentence contrasts the timing of the deepest snowpack at lower elevations versus higher elevations. The transition phrase should highlight this contrast or difference.

• A) in other words, — Incorrect. This phrase restates or clarifies the previous idea rather than introducing a contrast.
• B) for instance, — Incorrect. This phrase introduces an example, which doesn’t fit here because the sentence is not providing an example but contrasting timing at different elevations.
• C) on the other hand, — Correct. This phrase signals a contrast, appropriate for showing the different timing of snowpack depths at higher elevations compared to lower elevations.
• D) in summary, — Incorrect. This phrase is used to conclude or summarize, which is not the case here.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) on the other hand, because it clearly highlights the contrast in timing between lower and higher elevations.

Question 29

The Inca of South America used intricately knotted string devices called quipus to record countable information, like population data and payments. _______ they may have used quipus to record more complex information, like stories and myths, according to researchers.

A) As a result,
B) In other words,
C) In addition,
D) For example,

Explanation: The second sentence adds another possible function of quipus—it expands on the first by suggesting a broader, more complex use. The correct transition should show an addition, not a result, restatement, or example.

• A) As a result, — Incorrect. This phrase indicates a cause-effect relationship, which is not what the sentence expresses.
• B) In other words, — Incorrect. This is used to rephrase or simplify something, not to add a new idea.
• C) In addition, — Correct. This phrase introduces additional information and is the most logical choice to connect the idea of basic data recording with the possible recording of stories and myths.
• D) For example, — Incorrect. This would suggest the second sentence is an example of the first, but it’s actually a different kind of information, not an example of countable data.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) In addition, because it properly introduces a new, more complex possible use of quipus.

Question 30

In hindsight, given the ideas about the natural world circulating among British scientists in the 1800s, the theory of natural selection was an obvious next step. It may not have been a coincidence, _______ that Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace arrived at the concept independently. Indeed, contrary to the popular myth of the lone genius, theirs is not the first paradigm-shifting theory to have emerged from multiple scholars working in parallel.

A) however,
B) then,
C) moreover,
D) for example,

Explanation: The first sentence claims that the intellectual environment of 19th-century Britain made the theory of natural selection a logical development. The next sentence proposes that Darwin and Wallace independently arriving at the same idea is a natural outcome of that environment. So, the second sentence is a continuation of the reasoning — not a contrast, not an additional example, and not a standalone point. It draws a result or inference from the previous idea.

• A) however, — Incorrect. This signals a contrast, which doesn’t fit because the second sentence supports the first.
• B) then, — Correct. This indicates a conclusion or logical result. It’s used here to mean “in that case” or “therefore,” which aligns perfectly with the reasoning that follows from the prior sentence.
• C) moreover, — Incorrect. This would be used to add a new, similar point, but the sentence is continuing the same idea, not adding a different one.
• D) for example, — Incorrect. While Darwin and Wallace are examples of a broader point, the sentence isn’t being presented as an example. It’s a conclusion drawn from the previous statement.

Conclusion: The best answer is B) then, because it logically connects the two sentences as premise and conclusion.

Question 31

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• In the 1930s, the Imperial Sugar Cane Institute in India sought to limit the country’s dependence on imported sugarcane.
• The institute enlisted botanist Janaki Ammal to breed a local variety of sugarcane.
• She crossbred the imported sugarcane species Saccharum officinarum with grasses native to India.
• She succeeded in creating sugarcane hybrids well suited to India’s climate.

The student wants to emphasize Janaki Ammal’s achievement. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) By crossbreeding the imported sugarcane species Saccharum officinarum with grasses native to India, Ammal succeeded in creating sugarcane hybrids well suited to India’s climate.
B) In the 1930s, the Imperial Sugar Cane Institute, which enlisted Ammal, sought to limit dependence on imported sugarcane.
C) Ammal was enlisted by the Imperial Sugar Cane Institute at a time when a local variety of sugarcane needed to be produced.
D) As part of efforts to breed a local variety of sugarcane, an imported sugarcane species called Saccharum officinarum was crossbred with grasses native to India.

Explanation: This is one of those questions that explicitly tells you what to do. The prompt clearly says: “The student wants to emphasize Janaki Ammal’s achievement.” That means your job is not to summarize the full context or introduce the organization or even to highlight the historical moment — your job is to highlight what she did and what she accomplished.

• A) Correct. This choice puts the spotlight on Ammal and what she achieved — it shows both her action (“crossbreeding”) and the result (“hybrids well suited to India’s climate”). That’s a direct and specific description of her achievement. Exactly what the question asked for.
• B) Incorrect. This option focuses on the Institute’s goals in the 1930s, not on Ammal’s personal accomplishment.
• C) Incorrect. This tells us when Ammal was enlisted but doesn’t say anything specific about what she did or achieved. It’s vague and does not emphasize her work.
• D) Incorrect. This describes the breeding process passively and does not even name Ammal. If the goal is to highlight her achievement, she should be the subject of the sentence.

Tip: On questions like these, read the prompt carefully. If it says “the student wants to emphasize,” “compare,” “summarize,” or “highlight,” that tells you exactly what to prioritize. Don’t just look for a grammatically correct sentence — look for one that accomplishes the specific goal of the student.

Conclusion:A is the best choice because it directly and clearly emphasizes Janaki Ammal’s contribution and success.

Question 32

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• Elizabeth Catlett’s sculpture Recognition (1970) shows two African American figures with rounded, indistinct features.
• The figures reach out to each other in a pose that symbolizes a close, supportive relationship.
• Her sculpture Students Aspire (1978) shows two African American figures with sharply defined features.
• The figures hold an equal sign above their heads with one hand and embrace each other with the other hand.
• This pose symbolizes their support for each other in the pursuit of equality.

The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two sculptures. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) Catlett’s Students Aspire depicts two figures supporting each other in the pursuit of equality.
B)Recognition and Students Aspire both show African American figures in poses that symbolize supportive relationships.
C) Catlett completed Recognition in 1970 and Students Aspire in 1978.
D) The figures in Recognition have features that are rounded and indistinct, while the figures in Students Aspire have sharply defined features.

Explanation: This is another example of a question where the wording gives you a clear mission: “emphasize a similarity between the two sculptures.” That means you’re looking for a sentence that connects both works and highlights what they have in common — not when they were made, not how they’re different, not just what one of them shows, but what they share.</

• A) Incorrect. This focuses only on Students Aspire. It may mention a key idea (support), but it doesn’t say anything about Recognition, so it fails to show a similarity.
• B) Correct. This is the only option that compares both sculptures and emphasizes what they have in common — the presence of African American figures posed to symbolize support. That directly reflects what the question asks.
• C) Incorrect. This simply gives the dates the works were completed. It doesn’t mention the content of the sculptures or their themes — let alone how they’re similar.
• D) Incorrect. This option does the exact opposite of what the question asks. It highlights a difference in how the figures look, not a similarity in their poses or themes.

Tip: Pay close attention to the directive language in the question. When it says things like “emphasize a similarity,” your answer must include both subjects and focus on a shared trait or idea.

Conclusion:B is the correct answer because it compares both sculptures and emphasizes the common theme of supportive relationships.

Question 33

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• The ancient Arab dhow was a sailing vessel distinguishable by its triangular sails and stitched hull construction.
• Dhows were used primarily for trade along the coasts of Arab, South Asian, and East African countries.
• Contemporary shipbuilders in Oman use a mix of modern and traditional materials to build replicas of ancient dhows.
• Most of the materials used are traditional.
• Replica hulls are stitched together using the same traditional coconut palm fiber rope used on the hulls of ancient dhows.

The student wants to make a generalization about the materials used in dhow replicas. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) A traditional material that was used to stitch together the hulls of ancient dhows, coconut palm fiber rope is still used by shipbuilders.
B) The ancient Arab dhow was a sailing vessel used primarily for trade and distinguishable by its triangular sails.
C) Although most materials used in dhow replicas are traditional, some modern materials are used.
D) Contemporary shipbuilders in Oman build replicas of the dhow, which was an ancient sailing vessel with a stitched hull construction.

Explanation:

This question tells you clearly what kind of information to focus on: “a generalization about the materials used in dhow replicas.” That means the best answer will step back and give a big-picture summary about what kinds of materials (traditional, modern, or both) are used in today’s dhow replicas — not just one detail or background fact.

• A) Incorrect. This focuses narrowly on one specific traditional material (coconut palm fiber rope). While that detail is in the notes, it’s not a generalization. It doesn’t mention modern materials at all.
• B) Incorrect. This only gives background about the dhow itself — not about the replicas or the materials used to build them. It misses the actual focus of the question.
• C) Correct. This option gives a general statement about what kinds of materials are used — it covers both traditional and modern ones, with the correct emphasis on traditional. That’s exactly what the notes say, and it directly answers the question.
• D) Incorrect. This talks about who builds the replicas and describes the dhow itself, but doesn’t say anything about the materials used, so it doesn’t make the generalization the question asks for.

Tip: When the question asks for a generalization, look for an answer that summarizes or gives an overview, rather than focusing on one detail or just background info.

Conclusion:C is the correct answer because it clearly states a broad truth about the materials used in dhow replicas, matching the notes and the question’s goal.

SAT PRACTICE TEST 6: MODULE 2
Reading & Writing

Question 1

The works of Chicana artist Ester Hernandez are now _______ in museums both in the United States and abroad, but the murals she contributed to as a member of Las Mujeres Muralistas early in her artistic career were displayed in outdoor public spaces across San Francisco.

A) invented
B) adjusted
C) featured
D) recommended

Explanation: The sentence contrasts where Ester Hernandez’s work is displayed now (in museums) with where it was displayed earlier (in public spaces). We need a word that precisely describes how her art is currently presented in museums — a formal exhibition setting.

• A) invented — Incorrect. “Invented” means created for the first time. This doesn’t fit because her work already exists; the sentence isn’t about when or how it was made but about where it’s being shown now.
• B) adjusted — Incorrect. “Adjusted” means changed or modified, which doesn’t make sense in this context. The sentence isn’t about changes made to her art but about how it’s displayed.
• C) featured — Correct. This is the most logical and precise word. “Featured” means highlighted or showcased, which is exactly how works are typically presented in museums. It fits the formal tone and creates a clear contrast with her earlier public murals.
• D) recommended — Incorrect. “Recommended” is used when giving advice or making suggestions. It doesn’t make sense here because museums don’t recommend art — they exhibit it.

Conclusion: The best choice is C) featured because it accurately and clearly describes how Ester Hernandez’s work is currently being displayed in museums, aligning with the sentence’s contrast between past and present settings.

Question 2

Whether Carmen Lomas Garza is creating small paintings and illustrations or large public artworks—such as Baile, a copper cutout of traditional Mexican dance in the San Francisco International Airport—she is _______ direct experience, drawing from memories of her childhood in Texas or details of her current surroundings in California.

A) complimented by
B) uncertain about
C) unbothered by
D) inspired by

Explanation: The second half of the sentence clarifies that Garza “draws from memories of her childhood in Texas” and current experiences in California. This tells us that her art is deeply connected to and shaped by her lived experiences. We need a word that reflects that direct connection to personal memory and environment.

• A) complimented by — Incorrect. “Complimented by” implies something that goes well with something else. This doesn’t fit logically; direct experience isn’t something that “compliments” her work — it informs or inspires it.
• B) uncertain about — Incorrect. This would suggest she’s unsure of her experiences, which makes no sense in a context where she’s confidently using them as a source for her art.
• C) unbothered by — Incorrect. This would imply indifference or detachment, but the sentence emphasizes the opposite — that her memories and surroundings actively influence her creative process.
• D) inspired by — Correct. “Inspired by” fits perfectly. It clearly shows that her art is motivated and shaped by personal experiences, aligning with the details in the rest of the sentence about memory and place.

Conclusion: The best choice is D) inspired by because it accurately conveys how Carmen Lomas Garza’s art draws from and is influenced by her direct, lived experiences.

Question 3

Animal researcher Amalia P.M. Bastos led a 2021 study about a wild kea parrot that used small stones as tools to preen its feathers. Skeptical colleagues had initially suggested to Bastos that the kea’s interactions with the stones might simply be _______, but Bastos and her team showed that the kea was using the stones deliberately.

A) intriguing
B) obvious
C) accidental
D) observable

Explanation: The structure of the sentence sets up a contrast. The skeptical colleagues didn’t believe the behavior was intentional; they thought it was something less meaningful. Then Bastos proved the behavior was deliberate. So we’re looking for a word that reflects an unintentional or random action — the opposite of “deliberately.”

• A) intriguing — Incorrect. This means interesting or fascinating. It doesn’t reflect skepticism or randomness — it’s too neutral or even positive.
• B) obvious — Incorrect. This makes no logical sense in context. If the behavior were “obvious,” there would be no need for debate or research to prove it was intentional.
• C) accidental — Correct. This fits perfectly. The skeptical colleagues assumed the kea’s use of stones wasn’t purposeful but accidental. This sets up the contrast with Bastos’s findings that the behavior was “deliberate.”
• D) observable — Incorrect. This simply means something that can be seen. It doesn’t express doubt or chance, and it doesn’t contrast with “deliberate.”

Conclusion: The correct answer is C) accidental because it logically sets up the contrast between what skeptical scientists assumed and what Bastos’s research ultimately demonstrated.

Question 4

In 1891, design artist William Morris cofounded the Kelmscott Press, which printed editions of books using preindustrial methods. Historians argue that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is _______ the Kelmscott editions’ use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation reminiscent of medieval manuscripts: these meticulously handcrafted elements exemplify the artistry involved.

A) insensible to
B) manifest in
C) scrutinized by
D) complicated by

Explanation: The sentence is making a cause-effect or expression-embodiment connection: Morris rejected industrialization, and that rejection is shown through the Kelmscott Press’s handcrafted, artistic books. The second part of the sentence supports this — it talks about “meticulously handcrafted elements” as a reflection of that philosophy. So we’re looking for a phrase that means the repudiation is evident in or demonstrated by the books.

• A) insensible to — Incorrect. This means unaware of or not responsive to, which makes no sense here. Morris’s beliefs are not “unaware” of the books; they’re reflected in them.
• B) manifest in — Correct. “Manifest in” means clearly shown or demonstrated by. This fits the sentence perfectly: Morris’s rejection of industrialization is manifest in (clearly expressed by) the Kelmscott Press’s traditional, handcrafted design choices.
• C) scrutinized by — Incorrect. This would mean his ideas are being examined by the books, which is illogical — books don’t scrutinize things. This flips the relationship in the wrong direction.
• D) complicated by — Incorrect. This would imply that the handcrafted elements make Morris’s rejection of industrialization more difficult to understand or more problematic, which contradicts the supportive tone of the sentence.

Conclusion: The correct answer is B) manifest in because it precisely and logically conveys that Morris’s beliefs were clearly expressed through the Kelmscott Press’s handcrafted, medieval-style book designs.

Question 5

Mary Engle Pennington, a chemist who helped advance home refrigeration, undoubtedly made a substantial impact on society, but her place in our historical memory is perhaps more _______ than that of Stephanie Kwolek, who invented the incredibly strong material known as Kevlar, an accomplishment for which she will long be remembered.

A) permanent
B) tentative
C) warranted
D) prominent

Explanation: The sentence contrasts Pennington’s real contributions to science with how she is remembered compared to Kwolek. The tone suggests that Pennington’s legacy is less secure or recognized in the public consciousness, so we need a word that reflects something uncertain or not firmly established in historical memory.

• A) permanent — Incorrect. This suggests lasting remembrance, which contradicts the idea that her place in memory is less secure than Kwolek’s.
• B) tentative — Correct. “Tentative” means uncertain or not fully established. This perfectly fits the idea that Pennington’s legacy is not as well-defined or firmly remembered as Kwolek’s.
• C) warranted — Incorrect. This refers to whether something is deserved or justified, which doesn’t match the focus on public memory or recognition.
• D) prominent — Incorrect. While this would describe Kwolek’s recognition, it doesn’t make sense in the context of describing Pennington’s *lesser* recognition. Saying her place is “more prominent” contradicts the rest of the sentence.

Conclusion: The best answer is B) tentative because it accurately describes Pennington’s uncertain or less secure place in historical memory in contrast to Kwolek’s well-known achievement.

Question 6

The following text is from Betty Smith’s 1943 novel A Tree Grows in Brooklyn. Francie, a young girl, visits the library often.
Francie thought that all the books in the world were in that library and she had a plan about reading all the books in the world. She was reading a book a day in alphabetical order and not skipping the dry ones. She remembered that the first author had been Abbott. She had been reading a book a day for a long time now and she was still in the B’s. Already she had read about bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations and Byzantine architecture. For all her enthusiasm, she had to admit that some of the B’s had been hard going. But Francie was a reader.

A) To illustrate Francie’s enjoyment of an unusual topic
B) To explain why Francie prefers reading over other activities
C) To portray Francie’s determination to meet a goal
D) To describe a book that Francie greatly admires

Explanation: This passage isn’t about a specific book or topic, and it doesn’t compare reading to other hobbies. Instead, it shows us how committed Francie is to a goal: reading every single book in the library, one by one, in alphabetical order. Even though some of the books are boring (“hard going”), she doesn’t skip them. That shows determination — she’s sticking to her goal no matter what.

• A) Incorrect. While Francie does mention reading about bees, buffaloes, and other things, the passage doesn’t focus on any one “unusual topic.” It’s more about her overall plan.
• B) Incorrect. There’s no mention of her choosing reading *instead* of other activities. The passage doesn’t compare reading to anything else she might be doing.
• C) Correct. The whole point of the paragraph is to show Francie’s dedication and determination to complete a big goal — reading all the books in the library, in order, even if they’re boring.
• D) Incorrect. The passage does not describe a book that she loves or admires. It talks about many books and even says that some of them are dry or hard to get through.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) To portray Francie’s determination to meet a goal because the passage is clearly focused on how seriously she takes her plan to read all the books in the library, even the ones that are difficult or boring.

Reading Tip for Students: When a question asks for the “main purpose,” think about what the author wants you to understand most. Ask yourself: What’s the big idea? What do all the sentences in the passage support or build toward? That will usually lead you to the right answer.

Question 7

Researchers have long hypothesized that woolly mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with grooved tips known as Clovis points. One anthropologist set out to test this hypothesis. Using a mechanical spear-thrower, he launched spears with Clovis points into mounds of clay—substitutes for the animals’ large bodies. The projectiles generally penetrated only a few inches into the clay, an amount insufficient to have harmed most woolly mammoths. This led the anthropologist to conclude that hunters using spears with Clovis points likely weren’t the principal drivers of the extinction.

A) To argue for the significance of new findings amid an ongoing debate among researchers
B) To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the method used in an experiment
C) To summarize two competing hypotheses and a major finding associated with each one
D) To describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis

Explanation: The passage describes a commonly held belief (that humans using Clovis points caused mammoth extinction) and then explains an experiment designed to test that idea. The results of the experiment challenge the original hypothesis, leading to the conclusion that hunters may not have been the primary cause of extinction. This directly shows that the purpose is to present an experiment that *questions* or *casts doubt on* a long-standing belief.

• A) Incorrect. Although the experiment introduces new findings, the passage doesn’t focus on a broader “debate” or compare multiple viewpoints. It focuses specifically on one hypothesis and an experiment testing it.
• B) Incorrect. The passage briefly describes the method but doesn’t weigh its pros and cons. The focus is on the conclusion drawn from the test, not the quality of the experimental method.
• C) Incorrect. Only one hypothesis is presented here (that humans using Clovis points caused extinction). There’s no second competing idea mentioned.
• D) Correct. The passage clearly explains how one experiment led a researcher to question a widely accepted explanation — that Clovis-point spears caused mammoth extinction. This aligns perfectly with answer D.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) To describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis because that is exactly what the passage explains in detail.

Reading Tip for Students: Pay close attention to the flow of the passage: Does it describe a long-standing idea? Does it test that idea? Does it provide new evidence? These clues can help you spot when a passage is challenging or revising a commonly accepted belief.

Question 8

The people of medieval Europe have traditionally been seen as uninterested in cleanliness and hygiene, but modern research has shown that this is largely a myth. According to historian Eleanor Janega, most medieval towns in Europe had at least one public bathhouse, which often offered both full-immersion baths and—more affordably—steam baths. While such amenities were available mainly to town dwellers, regular bathing in rivers and streams or daily sponge baths at home were common practices throughout medieval Europe.

A) It asserts that in medieval Europe steam baths were more popular in rural areas than in urban ones.
B) It describes a limitation of earlier historians’ studies of medieval European bathing habits.
C) It concedes that not all people in medieval Europe had access to public bathhouses.
D) It explains why Janega decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe.

Explanation: The underlined portion says that “such amenities were available mainly to town dwellers,” meaning not everyone—especially those in rural areas—had access to public bathhouses. The next part of the sentence clarifies that rural people still had ways to bathe, just not in public bathhouses. So, the underlined portion is acknowledging a limitation or exception: public bathhouses were mostly urban.

• A) Incorrect. The sentence never claims that steam baths were more popular in rural areas. In fact, it says those amenities were **mainly** for **town dwellers**.
• B) Incorrect. The sentence doesn’t talk about earlier historians or their mistakes—just facts about who had access to bathhouses.
• C) Correct. The underlined phrase admits that only people in towns had access to those public bathhouses, which is a concession. This makes it a logical acknowledgment that not everyone in medieval Europe could use those amenities.
• D) Incorrect. The sentence doesn’t explain Janega’s reasons for doing her research; it just reports one of her findings.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) It concedes that not all people in medieval Europe had access to public bathhouses because it recognizes the limited availability of those amenities while showing that alternative hygiene practices were still common.

Reading Tip for Students: When you see a phrase that starts with “While…” or “Although…”, look for a contrast or concession. These words often introduce a point that slightly weakens or complicates the previous idea.

Question 9

Scholarly accounts of the Chicano movement—a movement that advocated for the social, political, and cultural empowerment of Mexican Americans and reached its zenith in the 1960s and 1970s—tend to focus on the most militant, outspoken figures in the movement, making it seem uniformly radical. Geographer Juan Herrera has shown, however, that if we shift our focus toward the way the movement manifested in comparatively low-profile neighborhood institutions and projects, we see participants espousing an array of political orientations and approaches to community activism.

A) It presents a trend in scholarship on the Chicano movement that the text claims has been reevaluated by researchers in light of Herrera’s work on the movement’s participants.
B) It identifies an aspect of the Chicano movement that the text implies was overemphasized by scholars due to their own political orientations.
C) It describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants.
D) It summarizes the conventional method for analyzing the Chicano movement, which the text suggests creates a misleading impression of the effectiveness of neighborhood institutions and projects.

Explanation: The underlined portion points out that scholars generally focus on the most radical and outspoken leaders, which makes the entire movement seem very uniform and extreme. The rest of the passage explains that this focus misses the diversity of political views present in less visible community groups.

• A) Incorrect. While Herrera’s work reevaluates the movement, the underlined part itself does not mention researchers or reevaluation; it simply states the common scholarly focus.
• B) Incorrect. The text does not suggest scholars’ political biases caused the focus; it critiques the narrowness of focus, not scholars’ motivations.
• C) Correct. This choice accurately describes the underlined portion as explaining a typical approach to studying the movement that hides the true range of political views among participants.
• D) Incorrect. The text does not address impressions about the effectiveness of neighborhood institutions, only the overall portrayal of the movement’s radicalism.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) It describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants because the underlined part highlights how focusing only on radical figures creates a misleadingly uniform image of the movement.

Question 10

Elizabeth Asiedu has identified a negative correlation between the share of developing countries’ economies derived from natural-resource extraction and those countries’ receipts of foreign investment. This may appear counterintuitive—resource extraction requires initial investments (in extractive technology, for instance) at scales best met by multinational corporations—but Asiedu notes that natural-resource industries’ boom-bust cycle can destabilize local currencies and increase developing countries’ vulnerability to external shocks, creating levels of uncertainty to which foreign investors are typically averse.

A) Although it may seem surprising that foreign investment declines in developing countries as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of those countries’ economies, that decline happens because resource extraction requires initial investments too large for foreign investors to supply.
B) Although developing countries tend to become less dependent on foreign investment as natural-resource industries make up a larger share of their economies, this change may not occur if the boom-bust cycle of those industries destabilizes local currencies or increases countries’ vulnerability to external shocks.
C) Although one might expect that foreign investment would increase as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of developing countries’ economies, the opposite happens because heavy reliance on natural resources can lead to unattractive conditions for investors.
D) Although foreign investors tend to avoid initial investments in natural-resource industries in developing countries, foreign investment may increase significantly as those industries stabilize and the risks associated with them decline.

Explanation: The passage explains that as natural-resource extraction becomes a larger part of developing countries’ economies, foreign investment actually decreases. This seems surprising at first, since resource extraction requires big investments, often from multinational companies. However, the passage clarifies that the boom-and-bust cycles in resource industries cause economic instability—like fluctuating local currencies and vulnerability to external shocks—which makes investors wary. Choice C best summarizes this main idea. Choice A is incorrect because it wrongly claims the decline happens due to the size of initial investments, which the passage doesn’t say. Choice B misinterprets the passage by suggesting the decline might not happen in unstable conditions, which contradicts the text. Choice D talks about future increases in investment as conditions improve, but the passage focuses on the negative correlation rather than future scenarios.

• A) Incorrect. The passage does not say that foreign investors avoid investing because the initial investment is too large, so this option misrepresents the reason for the decline.
• B) Incorrect. This option contradicts the passage by implying that instability might prevent the decline, while the passage says instability causes the decline.
• C) Correct. This choice accurately captures the surprising negative relationship explained in the passage, showing that dependence on natural resources can deter investors due to instability.
• D) Incorrect. The passage does not discuss increased investment once industries stabilize; it focuses on the current negative correlation.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) Although one might expect that foreign investment would increase as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of developing countries’ economies, the opposite happens because heavy reliance on natural resources can lead to unattractive conditions for investors.

Question 11

To understand how temperature change affects microorganism-mediated cycling of soil nutrients in alpine ecosystems, Eva Kaštovská et al. collected plant-soil cores in the Tatra Mountains at elevations around 2,100 meters and transplanted them to elevations of 1,700–1,800 meters, where the mean air temperature was warmer by 2°C. Microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores; crucially, microorganism community composition was unchanged, allowing Kaštovská et al. to attribute the acceleration to temperature-induced increases in microorganism activity.

Which choice best explains why the finding about microorganism community composition was important?

A) It provided preliminary evidence that microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores.
B) It suggested that temperature-induced changes in microorganism activity may be occurring at increasingly high elevations.
C) It ruled out a potential alternative explanation for the acceleration in microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling.
D) It clarified that microorganism activity levels in the plant-soil cores varied depending on which microorganisms comprised the community.

Explanation: The passage highlights that the microorganism community composition did not change after transplantation. This is important because it lets the researchers conclude that the observed increase in nutrient cycling was due to increased activity of the same microorganisms caused by higher temperature, rather than a change in the types of microorganisms present. Therefore, this finding helps eliminate other possible reasons (like different microorganisms taking over) for the faster nutrient cycling. Choice C correctly identifies this reasoning.

• A) Incorrect. The acceleration of nutrient cycling was observed directly; the composition finding did not provide preliminary evidence for this.
• B) Incorrect. The passage does not discuss whether changes occur at even higher elevations, so this inference is unsupported.
• C) Correct. By showing that the community composition remained the same, the researchers ruled out a change in microorganism types as the cause, supporting temperature-induced activity increases as the explanation.
• D) Incorrect. The passage does not say that activity levels varied with different microorganisms; it says the composition did not change.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) It ruled out a potential alternative explanation for the acceleration in microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling.

Question 12

Some astronomers searching for extraterrestrial life have proposed that atmospheric NH₃ (ammonia) can serve as a biosignature gas—an indication that a planet harbors life. Jingcheng Huang, Sara Seager, and colleagues evaluated this possibility, finding that on rocky planets, atmospheric NH₃ likely couldn’t reach detectably high levels in the absence of biological activity. But the team also found that on so-called mini-Neptunes—gas planets smaller than Neptune but with atmospheres similar to Neptune’s—atmospheric pressure and temperature can be high enough to produce atmospheric NH₃.

Based on the text, Huang, Seager, and colleagues would most likely agree with which statement about atmospheric NH₃?

A) Its presence is more likely to indicate that a planet is a mini-Neptune than that the planet is a rocky planet that could support life.
B) Its absence from a planet that’s not a mini-Neptune indicates that the planet probably doesn’t have life.
C) It should be treated as a biosignature gas if detected in the atmosphere of a rocky planet but not if detected in the atmosphere of a mini-Neptune.
D) It doesn’t reliably reach high enough concentrations in the atmospheres of rocky planets or mini-Neptunes to be treated as a biosignature gas.

Explanation: According to the text, NH₃ on rocky planets can’t reach detectable levels *unless* there’s biological activity, which supports its use as a biosignature gas on rocky planets. However, on mini-Neptunes, NH₃ can form abiotically due to high pressure and temperature, so its presence there wouldn’t indicate life. This supports the view that NH₃ is a biosignature only in certain planetary contexts.

• A) Incorrect. The text doesn’t suggest comparing the likelihood of a planet being a mini-Neptune versus a rocky planet based on NH₃ presence. It’s about interpretation, not classification.
• B) Incorrect. The text doesn’t claim that NH₃ *must* be present on life-harboring rocky planets, only that it’s unlikely to be present *without* life.
• C) Correct. This aligns exactly with the conclusion drawn in the passage: NH₃ is a valid biosignature on rocky planets (where abiotic production is unlikely) but not on mini-Neptunes (where abiotic production is possible).
• D) Incorrect. NH₃ can reach high levels on mini-Neptunes abiotically, so the statement is not accurate for both planet types.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) It should be treated as a biosignature gas if detected in the atmosphere of a rocky planet but not if detected in the atmosphere of a mini-Neptune.

Question 13

In 2021, four of the United States national parks that were among the most visited were Grand Canyon National Park, Rocky Mountain National Park, Yellowstone National Park, and Zion National Park. The graph shows the number of visits for recreation to each of these parks during the three-month period with the highest number of visitors. A student notes that among the parks shown in the graph, the park with the highest monthly recreation visits in all three months was _______

A) Zion National Park.
B) Rocky Mountain National Park.
C) Yellowstone National Park.
D) Grand Canyon National Park.

Tutor’s Notes: This question is an insult to our intelligence. :/ If you are older than 6, you should answer this one correctly. Line up = more people. Line down = fewer people.

Explanation: The question asks for the park with the highest monthly recreation visits in all three months based on the graph. The data clearly shows Yellowstone National Park consistently had more visits each month than the other parks.

• A) Incorrect. Zion National Park’s visit numbers are lower than Yellowstone’s for all three months.
• B) Incorrect. Rocky Mountain National Park’s visits are consistently below Yellowstone’s numbers.
• C) Correct. Yellowstone National Park’s line on the graph remains above the others for all three months, indicating it had the highest visits throughout.
• D) Incorrect. Grand Canyon National Park has fewer visits compared to Yellowstone in every month shown.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) Yellowstone National Park. The graph’s clear, consistent data makes this choice the obvious correct answer.

Question 14

“Lines Written in Early Spring” is a 1798 poem by William Wordsworth. In the poem, the speaker describes having contradictory feelings while experiencing the sights and sounds of a spring day: _______

Which quotation from “Lines Written in Early Spring” most effectively illustrates the claim?

A) “Through primrose-tufts, in that sweet bower, / The periwinkle trail’d its wreathes; / And ’tis my faith that every flower / Enjoys the air it breathes.”
B) “The budding twigs spread out their fan, / To catch the breezy air; / And I must think, do all I can, / That there was pleasure there.”
C) “The birds around me hopp’d and play’d: / Their thoughts I cannot measure, / But the least motion which they made, / It seem’d a thrill of pleasure.”
D) “I heard a thousand blended notes, / While in a grove I [sat] reclined, / In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.”

Explanation: The question asks for a line that shows the speaker experiencing *contradictory feelings*—specifically, feeling both joy from nature and sadness at the same time. The correct quote must directly reflect that emotional tension.

• A) Incorrect. This option reflects pure appreciation and belief in nature’s joy. There’s no mention of sadness or contradiction.
• B) Incorrect. This reflects a hopeful assertion of joy in nature, but it does not include or imply any sadness or conflicting emotion.
• C) Incorrect. This line is about observing happiness in birds, again without any conflict or emotional contrast.
• D) Correct. This option explicitly captures the speaker’s mixed feelings—“pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.” It perfectly matches the idea of contradictory emotions.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) “I heard a thousand blended notes, / While in a grove I [sat] reclined, / In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.”

Question 15

To test whether a medication is effective, scientists compare outcomes for patients taking it and patients taking a placebo (a medically inactive substance). Patients normally aren’t told they’re receiving a placebo, but a research team conducted a study to see if there might be a medical benefit to telling them. The team used various measures to evaluate participants, with higher ratings indicating greater well-being in each measure. Compared to the mean ratings after 21 days for participants in the control group, the mean ratings for participants who were aware of taking a placebo _______

A) ranged from 5.0 to 92.00, indicating that well-being varied widely from participant to participant.
B) were lower for two measures, with the rating for only one measure indicating greater well-being for these participants.
C) ranged from 3.9 to 46.00, with no rating indicating greater well-being in any measure for these participants.
D) were higher for all three measures, indicating greater overall well-being for these participants.

Explanation: All three measures in the table—global improvement (5.0 vs. 3.9), symptom severity reduction (92.00 vs. 46.00), and quality of life improvement (11.4 vs. 5.4)—are higher for participants who were aware they were taking a placebo. Since higher ratings indicate greater well-being, this means that participants who knew they were taking a placebo still reported better outcomes across all categories.

• A) Incorrect. While the ratings do range from 5.0 to 92.00, this answer talks about variation from participant to participant, which the table doesn’t show—it gives mean ratings, not individual responses.
• B) Incorrect. This reverses the data: ratings were not lower for two measures—they were higher across all three.
• C) Incorrect. This also misrepresents the data. Ratings were all higher, and 3.9 to 46.00 describes the control group, not the placebo-aware group.
• D) Correct. This accurately summarizes the chart: all three mean ratings were higher, indicating greater overall well-being in the placebo-aware group.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) were higher for all three measures, indicating greater overall well-being for these participants.

Tip for Questions with Numbers and Tables: When answering data interpretation questions, look for clear patterns or major differences. Here, all three ratings for the placebo-aware group are noticeably higher than the control group: 5.0 vs. 3.9, 92.00 vs. 46.00, and 11.4 vs. 5.4. You don’t need to analyze the exact scale—just recognize that every value is higher. This can help you eliminate any answer choice that mentions lower ratings or uncertainty and lead you to the correct answer faster.

Question 16

As media consumption has become increasingly multiplatform and socially mediated, active news acquisition has diminished in favor of an attitude known as “news finds me” (NFM), in which people passively rely on their social networks and ambient media environments for information about current events. Homero Gil de Zúñiga and Trevor Diehl examined data on a representative group of adults in the United States to determine participants’ strength of NFM attitude, political knowledge, and political interest. Although no major election took place sufficiently near the study for Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl to identify causality between NFM and voting behavior, they did posit that NFM may reduce voting probability through an indirect effect.

A) NFM attitude tends to increase in strength as major elections approach, and people are significantly more likely to vote in major elections than in minor elections.
B) NFM attitude has a strong negative effect on political knowledge and interest, and there is known to be a strong positive correlation between political knowledge and interest and the likelihood of voting.
C) Political interest is known to have a strong positive effect on likelihood of voting but shows only a weak positive effect on political knowledge, and NFM attitude shows little correlation with either political knowledge or political interest.
D) The likelihood of voting increases as political knowledge increases, and the relationship between NFM attitude and political knowledge tends to strengthen as the size of people’s social networks increases.

Explanation: The passage says that the researchers believe the NFM attitude might indirectly reduce voting. To support this idea, we would need to see a logical chain like: NFM → less political knowledge and interest → lower voting probability.

• A) Incorrect. This choice says that NFM increases during elections, but it doesn’t explain how or whether it causes lower voting rates. It’s about timing, not mechanisms.
• B) Correct. This directly supports the researchers’ idea by showing that NFM reduces political knowledge and interest—two factors that are strongly tied to voting. This provides a clear indirect pathway: NFM → ↓ knowledge/interest → ↓ voting.
• C) Incorrect. This contradicts the proposed relationship by saying NFM shows little correlation with knowledge or interest, weakening the researchers’ idea instead of supporting it.
• D) Incorrect. While this mentions voting and political knowledge, it doesn’t clarify whether NFM reduces knowledge or interest. It focuses more on social network size as a moderating factor.

Tip: In social science passages, look for cause-effect chains. The researchers say NFM might reduce voting indirectly—so your job is to find a sequence like: NFM → ↓ political interest/knowledge → ↓ voting. This structure shows how you can identify support by linking the middle steps, even if the end result (like voting) wasn’t directly measured.

Conclusion: The best answer is B) NFM attitude has a strong negative effect on political knowledge and interest, and there is known to be a strong positive correlation between political knowledge and interest and the likelihood of voting.

Question 17

The practice of logging (cutting down trees for commercial and other uses) is often thought to be at odds with forest conservation (the work of preserving forests). However, a massive study in forest management and preservation spanning 700,000 hectares in Oregon’s Malheur National Forest calls that view into question. So far, results of the study suggest that forest plots that have undergone limited logging (the careful removal of a controlled number of trees) may be more robust than plots that haven’t been logged at all. These results, in turn, suggest that _______

A) logging may be useful for maintaining healthy forests, provided it is limited.
B) other forest management strategies are more effective than limited logging.
C) as time passes, it will be difficult to know whether limited logging has any benefits.
D) the best way to support forest health may be to leave large forests entirely untouched.

Explanation: The text builds toward a surprising conclusion: some logging might actually help preserve forest health. The evidence is that limited logging resulted in more robust forest plots compared to those left completely untouched.

• A) Correct. This is the most logical completion. It matches the tone and content of the passage, which suggests logging and conservation aren’t necessarily opposites if the logging is limited.
• B) Incorrect. This choice contradicts the passage. The passage promotes limited logging, not alternative strategies.
• C) Incorrect. The passage doesn’t express uncertainty about future results; it emphasizes what current results suggest.
• D) Incorrect. This also contradicts the findings. Leaving forests untouched led to less robust results, not better ones.

Conclusion: The best answer is A) logging may be useful for maintaining healthy forests, provided it is limited because it directly follows from the evidence presented in the study and reflects the overall conclusion of the passage.

Question 18

Even with the widespread adoption of personal computers, many authors still choose to write and revise their novels by hand and only then transcribe the final version on a computer. It may be tempting to speculate about how a novel written this way would be affected if it had been exclusively typed instead, but each novel is a unique entity resulting from a specific set of circumstances. Therefore, _______

A) in order to increase their efficiency, authors who currently write their novels largely by hand should instead work only on a computer.
B) authors who do most of their drafting and revising by hand likely have more success than those who work entirely on a computer.
C) novels written by hand take less time to produce, on average, than novels written on a computer do.
D) there is no way to reasonably evaluate how a work would be different if it had been written by other means.

Explanation: The text emphasizes the uniqueness of each novel and the futility of imagining how it would be different if it had been written differently. This leads to the conclusion that such speculation is not useful or valid.

• A) Incorrect. The passage does not discuss efficiency or advocate for computer use; it focuses on the individuality of the creative process.
• B) Incorrect. There’s no mention of success or comparison of outcomes based on writing method.
• C) Incorrect. The passage does not address time required for production, only the uniqueness of each work.
• D) Correct. This accurately reflects the conclusion: we can’t know how a novel would have been different if written in another format, because each one results from a specific creative process.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) there is no way to reasonably evaluate how a work would be different if it had been written by other means because it aligns with the idea that each novel is a one-of-a-kind product of its circumstances.

Reading Tip for Students: When a passage ends with a caution against speculation or emphasizes uniqueness, look for answers that reinforce the impossibility of making general comparisons or predictions.

Question 19

In forecasting weather events, meteorologists sometimes discuss the role of atmospheric rivers. What are atmospheric rivers, and how _______
Part of the water cycle, atmospheric rivers are narrow channels of moisture moving through the atmosphere. In certain conditions, these “rivers” can release some of their moisture as precipitation.

A) do they affect our weather.
B) they do affect our weather.
C) do they affect our weather?
D) they do affect our weather?

Explanation: The sentence begins with “What are atmospheric rivers, and how…,” signaling that a direct question is being asked. Therefore, the sentence should use question word order (inversion) and end with a question mark.

• A) Incorrect. This uses the correct word order for a question but is missing a question mark.
• B) Incorrect. This uses a statement word order, which is ungrammatical in this context.
• C) Correct. This uses proper question structure and punctuation: “What are atmospheric rivers, and how do they affect our weather?”
• D) Incorrect. This uses statement word order followed by a question mark, which is grammatically incorrect.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) do they affect our weather? because it uses the correct structure and punctuation for a compound question.

Question 20

One of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century, _______

A) Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland between 1891 and 1909.
B) 1891 and 1909 were the years between which Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland.
C) Greenland was where Matthew Henson made several treks between 1891 and 1909.
D) several treks across Greenland were made by Matthew Henson between 1891 and 1909.

Explanation: The introductory phrase “One of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century,” is a modifier and must be immediately followed by the noun it describes to avoid a dangling modifier. The sentence must be completed with a subject that matches the introductory phrase — in this case, “Matthew Henson.”

• A) Correct. This option properly completes the sentence by directly following the modifier with “Matthew Henson,” the person being described. The sentence is clear and grammatically correct.
• B) Incorrect. This option places “1891 and 1909” after the modifier, which illogically makes the years seem like they are the explorers.
• C) Incorrect. Like B, this option places the wrong noun (“Greenland”) after the introductory phrase, causing a dangling modifier.
• D) Incorrect. The passive structure puts “several treks” after the modifier, again leading to a dangling modifier because it is not the explorer being described.

Conclusion: The best answer is A) Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland between 1891 and 1909 because it correctly links the introductory phrase to its intended subject.

Question 21

Woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted using a carpet weaving technique passed down by the artist’s Turkish grandmother, _______ so lush and tactilely inviting that you are tempted to reach out and touch them.

A) the topological tapestries of Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou are
B) the Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou creates topological tapestries that are
C) when she creates her topological tapestries, Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou makes them
D) Alexandra Kehayoglou is an Argentine textile artist whose topological tapestries are

Explanation: The introductory phrase “Woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted using a carpet weaving technique passed down by the artist’s Turkish grandmother,” functions as a modifier and must be immediately followed by the noun it modifies to avoid a dangling modifier. The phrase describes the tapestries, so the sentence must be structured so that the tapestries immediately follow this introductory phrase.

• A) Correct. This option correctly places “the topological tapestries” directly after the introductory phrase, making the sentence clear and grammatically correct.
• B) Incorrect. The subject “the Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou” does not immediately follow the introductory phrase, causing a dangling modifier.
• C) Incorrect. The sentence is awkward and the modifier does not immediately describe a noun following it.
• D) Incorrect. The noun immediately after the modifier is “Alexandra Kehayoglou,” which is incorrect because the modifier describes the tapestries, not the artist.

Conclusion: The best answer is A) the topological tapestries of Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou are because it correctly follows the introductory phrase with the noun it modifies, ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.

Question 22

Physical materials can be classified by how much light passes through them. Clear glass, which is classified as transparent, allows all (or almost all) light to pass _______ wax paper, which is classified as translucent, allows only some light to pass through.

A) through,
B) through
C) through;
D) through and

Explanation: The sentence contains two independent clauses joined in a contrastive relationship: one about clear glass allowing almost all light through, and the other about wax paper allowing only some light. These two independent clauses require a proper punctuation or conjunction to link them correctly.

• A) Incorrect. A comma alone after “pass” creates a comma splice, joining two independent clauses improperly.
• B) Incorrect. No punctuation or conjunction makes the sentence a run-on.
• C) Correct. A semicolon properly connects two closely related independent clauses without a conjunction.
• D) Incorrect. “through and” is ungrammatical here because “pass through and wax paper” does not form a coherent phrase.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) through; because the semicolon correctly separates the two independent clauses, maintaining clarity and grammatical correctness.

Question 23

Using natural debris, such as dried _______ such as plastic bags; and more traditional art supplies, such as tree glue, Ghanaian artist Ed Franklin Gavua creates his striking Yiiiiikakaii* African masks, which he hopes can help viewers rethink how waste is used in their communities.

A) leaves, man-made trash:
B) leaves; man-made trash,
C) leaves, man-made trash,
D) leaves; man-made trash;

Explanation: This sentence contains two closely related but distinct items: “dried leaves” (natural debris) and “man-made trash such as plastic bags.” Because the second item itself includes a phrase with a comma (“such as plastic bags”), the semicolon after “leaves” is used to clearly separate the two complex list items and avoid confusion. The comma after “man-made trash” correctly leads into the next part of the sentence.

• A) Incorrect. A colon after “man-made trash” is incorrect because it interrupts the flow before the continuation of the sentence.
• B) Correct. The semicolon after “leaves” correctly separates two complex list items, and the comma after “man-made trash” appropriately connects the clause that follows.
• C) Incorrect. Using commas alone here causes confusion because “man-made trash such as plastic bags” includes a comma phrase, which can make the list ambiguous.
• D) Incorrect. The semicolon after “man-made trash” improperly ends the phrase, disrupting the sentence’s flow.

Conclusion: The best answer is B) leaves; man-made trash, because the semicolon properly separates the complex list items, improving clarity and conforming to Standard English conventions.

*that’s not a typo. That’s the actual name =)) Leeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeroyyyyyyy Jeeeennnnnkinnnnnssssss

Question 24

Latin America is known to have dozens, if not hundreds, of popular dance forms. Only five of these dances are included in international ballroom dance _______ rumba, samba, cha-cha-cha, paso doble, and jive—the last of which is grouped with the other Latin dances despite not having Latin roots.

A) competitions, however:
B) competitions, however,
C) competitions, however;
D) competitions; however,

Explanation: The phrase before the blank introduces a complete thought, and the list that follows expands on that thought. The word “however” is used here to introduce a contrasting detail.

• A) Correct. The comma before “however” sets it off as an interrupter, and the colon after “however” correctly introduces the list that follows, which elaborates on the five dances.
• B) Incorrect. Commas alone do not correctly introduce a list after “however.”
• C) Incorrect. A semicolon after “however” is incorrect punctuation when introducing a list.
• D) Incorrect. A semicolon before “however” suggests linking two independent clauses, but what follows is a list, so this punctuation is not appropriate.

Conclusion: The best answer is A) competitions, however: because the colon after “however” properly introduces the list of dances following the introductory clause.

Question 25

For thousands of years, humans have used domesticated goats (Capra hircus) to clear land of unwanted vegetation. When it comes to their diets, goats are notoriously _______ they will devour all kinds of shrubs and weeds, leaving virtually no part of any plant unconsumed.

A) indiscriminate and
B) indiscriminate,
C) indiscriminate
D) indiscriminate:

Explanation: The first part of the sentence (“goats are notoriously _______”) introduces a characteristic, and the second part (“they will devour…”) explains or illustrates this characteristic. A colon is used correctly here to introduce an explanation or elaboration following an independent clause.

• A) Incorrect. “and” can connect two independent clauses but here the second clause serves as an explanation rather than a coordinate idea.
• B) Incorrect. A comma alone creates a comma splice, incorrectly joining two independent clauses.
• C) Incorrect. No punctuation creates a run-on sentence.
• D) Correct. The colon properly introduces the explanation or elaboration of the characteristic “indiscriminate.”

Conclusion: The best answer is D) indiscriminate: because the colon correctly signals that what follows explains or illustrates the goats’ indiscriminate eating behavior.

Question 26

A species of Byropsis algae produces toxins to avoid being eaten by predators. However, in some cases, the toxins the organism uses to protect itself from predation actually _______ its attractiveness to predators. The Hawaiian sea slug, for example, not only tolerates Byropsis toxins but actually uses them for protection in the same way the algae does.

A) is increasing
B) increase
C) increases
D) has increased

Explanation: The subject of the verb is “the toxins,” which is plural. Therefore, the verb must agree in number and be plural as well. The phrase “actually _______ its attractiveness” contains a singular pronoun “its,” which refers back to the singular “a species of Byropsis algae,” but the verb in question must agree with the plural noun “toxins” that is the true subject of the clause.

• A) Incorrect. “is increasing” is singular and does not agree with the plural subject “toxins.”
• B) Correct. “increase” is plural and agrees with the plural subject “toxins.”
• C) Incorrect. “increases” is singular and does not agree with “toxins.”
• D) Incorrect. “has increased” is singular and does not agree with “toxins.”

Conclusion: The best answer is B) increase because it correctly matches the plural subject “toxins” with a plural verb form.

Question 27

After appropriate permissions are granted, a typical archaeological dig begins with a surveyor making a detailed grid of the excavation site. Then, the site is carefully dug, and any artifacts found are recorded and mapped onto the site grid. _______ the artifacts are removed, cataloged, and analyzed in a laboratory.

A) For instance,
B) On the contrary,
C) Earlier,
D) Finally,

Explanation: The passage describes the sequence of steps in an archaeological dig, progressing from creating a grid to digging and recording artifacts. The blank is looking for a word or phrase that logically continues this sequence to the next step in the process.

• A) Incorrect. “For instance” introduces an example, which does not fit the flow of sequential steps.
• B) Incorrect. “On the contrary” introduces a contrast, which is not appropriate here since the sentence continues the same process.
• C) Incorrect. “Earlier” implies a previous time, which conflicts with the forward sequence described.
• D) Correct. “Finally” logically introduces the last step in the sequence, which is the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) Finally, because it fits the logical progression of events in the archaeological dig process.

Question 28

The liquid metals in Earth’s core circulate constantly, and this circulation generates electrical currents that flow between Earth’s North and South magnetic poles. These electrical currents, _______ create a barrier around Earth that protects us from radiation and charged particles coming from space.

A) in turn,
B) likewise,
C) nevertheless,
D) in reality,

Explanation: The sentence describes a cause-and-effect sequence: circulation generates electrical currents, which then create a protective barrier. The blank requires a phrase that connects these ideas logically, showing that one event leads to the next.

• A) Correct. “In turn” indicates that the electrical currents are a direct result of circulation and that these currents then produce the protective barrier, fitting the cause-and-effect relationship.
• B) Incorrect. “Likewise” suggests similarity or agreement, which does not fit the causal sequence here.
• C) Incorrect. “Nevertheless” implies contrast or contradiction, which is not appropriate.
• D) Incorrect. “In reality” emphasizes truth or fact but does not logically connect the cause and effect in this context.

Conclusion: The best answer is A) in turn, as it properly signals the cause-and-effect relationship between the electrical currents and the protective barrier.

Question 29

Biographer Michael Gorra notes that the novelist Henry James “lived in a world of second thoughts,” frequently tinkering with his novels and stories after their initial publication. However, the differences between the 1881 first edition and the 1908 edition of his novel A Portrait of a Lady are extreme, even by James’s standards; _______ some critics regard the two editions as two different novels altogether.

A) by contrast,
B) in fact,
C) nevertheless,
D) in other words,

Explanation: The sentence introduces the extreme differences between two editions of a novel and then presents the view of some critics who see them as entirely different works. The blank requires a transition that emphasizes or confirms this surprising or notable point.

• A) Incorrect. “By contrast” indicates a comparison or opposition, which does not fit here because the sentence is continuing the idea about the differences rather than contrasting them.
• B) Correct. “In fact” emphasizes the surprising extent of the differences, supporting the idea that some critics treat the editions as distinct novels.
• C) Incorrect. “Nevertheless” suggests a contrast or concession, which is unnecessary here because the sentence builds on the previous idea.
• D) Incorrect. “In other words” indicates a restatement, but the following phrase is not a paraphrase but an additional idea.

Conclusion: The best answer is B) in fact, because it logically and effectively emphasizes the point about critics’ views on the editions.

Question 30

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• In World War I, US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma participated in the Choctaw Code Talkers program.
• The Choctaw Code Talkers were trained to relay coded military information in their native language.
• In World War II, the US Army recruited Navajo (Diné) soldiers to transmit coded messages in their native language.
• These soldiers were known as the Navajo Code Talkers.

The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma used their native language to relay coded information.
B) In World War II, one group of Navajo (Diné) soldiers was known as the Navajo Code Talkers.
C) Both the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers transmitted coded military messages in the soldiers’ native languages.
D) The Choctaw Code Talkers, not the Navajo Code Talkers, served in World War I.

Explanation: The question asks specifically for a statement that emphasizes a similarity between the two groups of Code Talkers. This means the correct answer must highlight a shared characteristic or commonality, rather than focusing on differences or information about only one group.

• A) Incorrect. This only describes the Choctaw Code Talkers, not the Navajo, so it does not emphasize a similarity.
• B) Incorrect. This only provides information about the Navajo Code Talkers, without mentioning the Choctaw or any similarity.
• C) Correct. This choice clearly shows that both groups used their native languages to transmit coded military messages, emphasizing their shared role.
• D) Incorrect. This highlights a difference in timing between the two groups, which does not emphasize similarity.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) because it directly highlights the similarity the question asks for.

SAT Tip: Always pay close attention to what these types of questions ask for—whether the student wants to present similarities, contrast, a summary, or specific details. This will guide you in selecting the most relevant answer.

Question 31

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories.
• A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall.
• All other meteorites found on Earth are known as meteorite finds.
• There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls.
• There have been over 60,000 recorded meteorite finds.

The student wants to contrast the number of meteorite falls with the number of meteorite finds. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall; all others are known as meteorite finds.
B) Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories: meteorite falls and meteorite finds.
C) There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, or meteorites observed falling to Earth.
D) While there have been only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds.

Explanation: The question asks for a statement that contrasts the number of meteorite falls with the number of meteorite finds. A contrast emphasizes the difference between two quantities or ideas.

• A) Incorrect. This explains the definitions of falls and finds but does not emphasize the difference in their numbers.
• B) Incorrect. This simply categorizes meteorites into two types without comparing their quantities.
• C) Incorrect. This provides information about the number of meteorite falls only, without mentioning meteorite finds.
• D) Correct. This choice explicitly contrasts the small number of meteorite falls with the much larger number of meteorite finds, effectively emphasizing the difference in their quantities.

Conclusion: The best answer is D) because it clearly contrasts the two numbers, fulfilling the question’s requirement.

SAT Tip: Notice how the question specifies what it wants—here, a contrast. Look for answer choices that highlight differences, such as using words like “while,” “however,” or comparisons of quantities.

Question 32

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• Doña María do Carmo Bandeira was a Brazilian botanist.
• Between 1924 and 1941, she collected approximately 800 botanical samples.
• She collected a sample of Polytrichum juniperinum from Serra de Itatiaia in Mauá in February of 1925.
• She collected a sample of Sphagnum gracilescen from Ponte do Inferno in Corcovado in March of 1925.
• Polytrichum juniperinum and Sphagnum gracilescen are both species of moss.

The student wants to emphasize the sample collected from Serra de Itatiaia. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) Doña María do Carmo Bandeira was a botanist notable for collecting approximately 800 botanical samples between 1924 and 1941.
B) Among the many botanical samples Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected was Polytrichum juniperinum, a species of moss she collected from Serra de Itatiaia in 1925.
C) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected many botanical samples, such as Polytrichum juniperinum from Serra de Itatiaia and Sphagnum gracilescen from Ponte do Inferno.
D) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected samples of Polytrichum juniperinum and Sphagnum gracilescen, both species of moss.

Explanation: The question asks for a sentence that emphasizes the sample collected from Serra de Itatiaia. To emphasize something means to highlight or give special importance to it.

• A) Incorrect. This choice focuses on the total number of samples collected and does not highlight the Serra de Itatiaia sample.
• B) Correct. This choice specifically highlights the sample of Polytrichum juniperinum collected from Serra de Itatiaia, emphasizing it as part of her many collections.
• C) Incorrect. This choice mentions the Serra de Itatiaia sample but also includes another sample, reducing the emphasis on the Serra de Itatiaia collection.
• D) Incorrect. This choice groups both moss species together without emphasizing the Serra de Itatiaia sample.

Conclusion: The best answer is B) because it directly emphasizes the specific sample collected from Serra de Itatiaia, fulfilling the question’s goal.

Question 33

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

• The US government classifies sensitive information according to the degree to which disclosure could affect the nation’s security.
• Information that could cause “damage” to national security is classified as Confidential.
• Information that could cause “serious damage” to national security is classified as Secret.
• Most routine diplomatic correspondence, if disclosed, could cause damage but not serious damage to national security.
• Diplomatic correspondence includes communication with both allies and adversaries.

The student wants to indicate which category most routine diplomatic correspondence belongs in, based on how sensitive information is classified. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) According to the US government, which classifies such sensitive information as routine diplomatic correspondence, Confidential information could damage national security if disclosed.
B) Most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified according to the degree to which disclosure could affect the nation’s security.
C) Having the potential to damage national security if disclosed, most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified as Confidential.
D) If disclosed, communication with both allies and adversaries could affect the nation’s security.

Explanation: The question asks for a statement that clearly indicates the classification category to which most routine diplomatic correspondence belongs. It requires connecting the classification system to the category of routine diplomatic correspondence.

• A) Incorrect. This sentence is confusing and misplaces the subject. It incorrectly implies that the government classifies routine diplomatic correspondence as sensitive information itself, and the phrasing is awkward.
• B) Incorrect. This is too general and does not specify the classification category for routine diplomatic correspondence.
• C) Correct. This sentence clearly states that most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified as Confidential because it could cause damage if disclosed, directly linking the classification system and the category.
• D) Incorrect. This sentence only notes that communication with allies and adversaries could affect security but does not specify classification or the category for routine diplomatic correspondence.

Conclusion: The best answer is C) because it directly connects the classification category (Confidential) with the nature of routine diplomatic correspondence as described in the notes.